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This article originally posted 12 September, 2009 and appeared in  Issue 486

Test Your Knowledge #486: A 48-year-old woman who has had Type 2 diabetes mellitus for several years

A 48-year-old woman who has had Type 2 diabetes mellitus for several years is seen for a routine follow-up evaluation. Her metabolic control has always been very good, with most hemoglobin A1c values less than 6.5%. Her current treatment is metformin 850 mg twice daily. She self-monitors her blood glucose two to three times daily and usually checks random 2-hour postprandial glucose values at least once daily. She notes that...

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her postprandial glucose levels have been above her target of less than 160 mg/dL (8.88 mmol/L) for several weeks, despite increasing her activity level by walking three or four times weekly after dinner.

Her body mass index is 29.2. Her blood pressure is 128/86 mm Hg, and her A1c value is 7.2%. Self-monitored blood glucose values from the past week are noted in her log as follows:

 
BLOOD GLUCOSE VALUE, mg/dL
 
 
Breakfast
Lunch
Dinner
 
 
Day
Pre
Post
Pre
Post
Pre
Post
Bedtime
Comments
Sun
96
 
109
132
Ate pastry
Mon
114
207
97
178
Walked
Tue
136
217
Wed
91
235
99
83
Walked
Thu
89
121
118
261
Fri
76
78
188
Walked
Sat
79
194
148

Pre = preprandial; post = 2-hour postprandial.

QUESTION:

Which of the following is the most appropriate change to this patient's treatment regimen?

A. Increase metformin to 1000 mg twice daily.

B. Initiate preprandial fast-acting insulin on nonexercise days. 

C. Add glargine at bedtime. 

D. Add a short-acting secretagogue (either repaglinide or nateglinide).

Click here for the correct answer.

 

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This article originally posted 12 September, 2009 and appeared in  Issue 486

Past five issues: Diabetes Clinical Mastery Series Issue 141 | Issue 681 | Diabetes Clinical Mastery Series Issue 140 | Issue 680 | Diabetes Clinical Mastery Series Issue 139 |

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