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This article originally posted 04 November, 2008 and appeared in  Issue 441

Test Your Knowledge Issue 441

Test Your Knowledge Issue 441
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This Week’s Question #441 - Diabetes In Control.com Newsletter

A 55-year-old woman who has had type 2 diabetes for 15 years is evaluated to review her blood glucose levels and adjust her medication. She currently takes metformin 1000 mg twice daily, glimepiride 4 mg/day, pioglitazone 30 mg/day, and insulin detemir 30 U at bedtime. She has no known microvascular or macrovascular complications of diabetes. Physical examination is remarkable for trace edema only. Her hemoglobin A1C value is 7.5%. Her home blood glucose log for the past week is as follows:

 

BLOOD GLUCOSE VALUE, mg/dL

 

Breakfast

Lunch

Dinner

 

Day

Pre

Post

Pre

Post

Pre

Post

Bedtime

Sun

136

84

178

275

185

Mon

172

167

203

175

Tue

124

279

118

214

167

Wed

103

154

186

223

174

Thu

92

129

175

261

198

Fri

118

251

132

174

184

Sat

87

97

134

171

Pre = preprandial; post = 2-hour postprandial.

Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment option for this patient now?

A. Increase insulin detemir dosage by 4 U

B. Increase glimepiride dosage to 8 mg/day

C. Increase pioglitazone dosage to 45 mg/day

D. Stop glimepiride and add pre-meal rapid-acting insulin

E. A and B

 

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This article originally posted 04 November, 2008 and appeared in  Issue 441

Past five issues: Issue 537 | Issue 536 | Issue 535 | Issue 534 | Issue 533 |

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